The Greek word 'agape' is translated both as 'charity' and 'love' in many places in the new testament in the KJV. What is the difference?
In Acts 1:13, Judas is referred to as the brother of James in the KJV, yet in all of the newer versions, he is called the son of James. Do you know why all of the newer versions change this?
Can we interpret John 21 better by knowing the Greek words agape and Phileo? It seems that Peter replies to Jesus twice that he "affectionately loves" Him, after He asks Peter twice if he loves Him--(in the sense of duty and of the will). Then, Jesus uses Peter's own word for love the third time: "Do you Peter love me affectionately?". That's a big part it seems why Peter was so grieved. Now, isn't it fair to say that you could never know this with the English? Is it possible that the scholars are lying to us about the Greek? Or, is it possible that the Greek manuscripts are in error? Or, not legitimate? I just don't know.
Can you please comment or explain Psalm 82:6 where God says, "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High." I know in John 10:34 Jesus makes reference to this passage. I have family members who are Mormons and they use these verses to promote their belief that they will one day become gods.
Who is King James?
