Many people use the New King James Version today. It is admittedly not as bad as those versions that completely depart from the Masoretic and Received Texts of the Hebrew and Greek Testaments. However, it still has the modern liberal approach to translation. This approach is as much the problem with new bibles as is the text they use for translation. Even versions that claim not to use the modernistic approach are very effected by this philosophy.
Jesus has gone from the "only begotten Son" to the "only begotten God" to the "One and Only." How did this happen and what does it mean?
Why did the King James translators use different English words for the same Greek or Hebrew word?
